Pass the Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 MCCQE Questions and answers with Dumpstech

This infant was born late preterm (36 weeks) with asymmetric intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and remains at the 3rd percentile. Although he is breastfeeding well, infants with IUGR and late prematurity often require enhanced caloric intake to support catch-up growth. MCCQE objectives emphasize optimizing postnatal nutrition in growth-restricted infants to promote appropriate weight gain while monitoring growth velocity.

Caloric fortification of expressed breast milk (or use of higher-calorie formula if needed) increases energy density without increasing feeding volume, supporting growth in infants who are small for gestational age. Simply continuing standard feeds may not provide sufficient calories for catch-up growth.

High-dose vitamin D is not indicated; routine supplementation (400 IU daily) is appropriate for breastfed infants. Early introduction of solids is not recommended before about 6 months of age. Switching to hydrolyzed formula is unnecessary without evidence of milk protein allergy.

Therefore, caloric-fortified feeding is the most appropriate next step to promote optimal growth in this infant.

A history of previous alcohol withdrawal seizures is the single greatest predictor of future withdrawal seizures. This establishes a sensitization response within the central nervous system.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Addiction Medicine:

“A prior history of alcohol withdrawal seizures is the most important risk factor for recurrent seizures during future withdrawal episodes.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Substance Use > 58-3):

“Candidates must identify individuals at high risk for severe alcohol withdrawal based on past withdrawal history, including seizures and delirium tremens.”

Although quantity, duration, and comorbidities contribute to risk, a prior withdrawal seizure most strongly predicts recurrence.

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

This patient is pregnant and febrile with a new headache, photophobia, and clonus — all features concerning for preeclampsia with neurologic involvement. Clonus is a key finding suggestive of central nervous system irritability. Urine protein/creatinine ratio helps confirm the diagnosis of preeclampsia.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Obstetrics, Hypertensive Disorders in Pregnancy:

“Headache, clonus, and visual disturbances are concerning for severe preeclampsia. A urine protein/creatinine ratio or 24-hour urine collection confirms diagnosis.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Obstetrics > Hypertension in Pregnancy:

“Candidates must recognize signs of preeclampsia and assess with appropriate biochemical testing.”

CT (A) or LP (B) are not indicated unless focal neurologic signs or seizures are present. Fetal imaging and amniocentesis (C, D) do not address maternal symptoms.

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Postoperative fever on day 1–2 is commonly caused by atelectasis, particularly in patients who are immobile. It is considered a self-limited cause of early fever after surgery and often resolves with mobilization and pulmonary exercises.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Surgery, Postoperative Complications:

“The ‘5 W’s’ of postoperative fever: Wind (atelectasis), Water (UTI), Wound (infection), Walking (DVT), and Wonder drugs. Atelectasis typically occurs in the first 48 hours and is due to hypoventilation or pain-limited breathing.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Surgery > Postoperative Management:

“Candidates must recognize timing-specific causes of postoperative fever. Atelectasis is the most likely cause within the first 48 hours.”

PE (B) can cause fever but is less likely without respiratory compromise. Wound infection (C) and bowel trauma (D) typically present later or with more specific symptoms. Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis (A) usually presents later and with more systemic signs.

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The patient is obese (BMI 35), has type 2 diabetes, and shows a hepatocellular pattern of transaminitis (elevated ALT > AST). These are typical features of nonalcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH), the inflammatory subtype of nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD).

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gastroenterology, NAFLD and NASH:

“NASH should be suspected in patients with metabolic syndrome, obesity, and type 2 diabetes, especially with elevated transaminases and normal bilirubin or INR.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Hepatology:

“Candidates should recognize the clinical profile of NAFLD/NASH, particularly in asymptomatic patients with metabolic risk factors and isolated liver enzyme elevations.”

Acute hepatitis B (A) typically has higher ALT and symptoms. Pancreatic carcinoma (B) affects biliary enzymes or bilirubin. Metformin (D) does not elevate liver enzymes. HCC (E) would often present with systemic or localized symptoms and abnormal imaging.

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A first-degree relative with colorectal cancer diagnosed before age 60 places this patient in an increased-risk screening category. For individuals with one first-degree relative diagnosed with colorectal cancer (or advanced adenoma) before age 60, recommended screening is colonoscopy starting at age 40, or 10 years earlier than the age at diagnosis in the affected relative—whichever comes first—then repeated at shorter intervals than average-risk screening (often every 5 years if results are normal, depending on local guidance and findings). Here, her father was diagnosed at 55, so “10 years earlier” would be age 45; however, the “whichever comes first” rule makes age 40 the correct start. Average-risk strategies such as FIT starting at 50 are not sufficient for this risk level. Flexible sigmoidoscopy alone is less appropriate because it does not evaluate the proximal colon and is not the preferred increased-risk test. Double-contrast barium enema is obsolete for screening, and CT colonography is not first-line in this context. MCCQE objectives emphasize tailoring screening to family-history risk and selecting the appropriate test and start age.

Tuberculosis is a communicable disease, so there can be a justified “duty to protect” others in the hospital through infection-control measures and public health notification. However, MCCQE ethics objectives emphasize that confidentiality remains the default obligation even when disclosure is permitted or required. In such cases, disclosure must follow the minimum necessary principle: only the information essential to reduce risk should be shared, and only with those who need it to perform their role (e.g., direct care team, infection prevention and control, occupational health, and public health). Informing “all staff at the hospital” and including the patient’s identity generally exceeds what is required and constitutes an avoidable breach of privacy.

Consent is not always required when disclosure is mandated by law (reportable diseases) or necessary to prevent serious harm, so option B is too absolute. Option A wrongly implies loss of privacy rights. Option D is incorrect because limited disclosure may be ethically and legally permitted to protect others. Option E is false; clinicians and institutions can be accountable for unjustified or excessive disclosure.

When elder neglect is suspected—especially in cases of self-neglect or unclear caregiver dynamics—the most important immediate step is to assess the patient’s decision-making capacity. If she lacks capacity, protective intervention is warranted.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Geriatrics, “Elder Abuse and Capacity Assessment”:

“Decision-making capacity must be assessed when a patient is refusing care despite evidence of harm or risk.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-1: Capacity and Consent):

“Candidates must assess capacity in elderly patients before attributing decisions to autonomy, particularly in complex care situations.”

Evaluating criminal records (B) or clutter (C) may be relevant later but do not take precedence over capacity assessment. Alcohol/substance use (D) and financial abuse (E) are differential concerns, not the critical first step.

Chlamydia trachomatis is the most common cause of cervicitis in young sexually active women and frequently presents with dysuria, dyspareunia, intermenstrual bleeding, and a normal vulvovaginal exam. It may be asymptomatic or have subtle signs and often affects the endocervix.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Gynecology, “Sexually Transmitted Infections” Section:

“Chlamydia is the most common bacterial STI. Symptoms may include intermenstrual bleeding, postcoital bleeding, dyspareunia, mucopurulent cervical discharge, and dysuria. The vulva and vagina may appear normal.”

MCCQE1 Objectives (Obstetrics and Gynecology > 82-1: Abnormal Uterine Bleeding):

“Candidates should evaluate STI-related cervicitis as a common cause of postcoital and intermenstrual bleeding in young women.”

Other options:

A. Actinomyces israelii is associated with IUD use, not relevant here.

B. Herpes simplex virus usually presents with painful ulcerations, not abnormal bleeding.

C. Treponema pallidum (syphilis) causes painless ulcers or systemic symptoms in later stages.

D. HPV causes warts or asymptomatic cervical dysplasia, not acute symptoms.

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The presentation is highly suspicious for acute aortic dissection — sudden chest/back pain and mediastinal widening on chest x-ray. The most definitive and widely available test is contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) of the chest.

Toronto Notes 2023 – Cardiology, Aortic Dissection:

“CT angiography of the chest is the gold standard for stable patients with suspected aortic dissection. Look for mediastinal widening on chest x-ray as a clue.”

MCCQE1 Objectives – Internal Medicine > Cardiovascular Disease:

“Candidates should recognize acute aortic dissection and select appropriate imaging, such as CT chest, for diagnosis in stable patients.”

Transthoracic echo (A) may miss dissections. ECG (C) helps rule out MI but not dissection. V/Q scan (D) and pulmonary angiography (E) are for suspected pulmonary embolism.

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