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Pass the Cisco CCNA 200-301 Questions and answers with Dumpstech
Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right
What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the prefix length for the route that Router1 will use to reach Host A?
What is an Ansible inventory?
Which WLC interface provides out-of-band management in the Cisco Unified Wireless Network Architecture?
What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking?
Refer to the exhibit.
Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?
Refer to the exhibit.
Drag and drop the destination IPs from the left onto the paths to reach those destinations on the right.
An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?
A)
B)
C)
D)
A router has two static routes to the same destination network under the same OSPF process. How does the router forward packets to the destination if the next-hop devices are different?
Refer to the exhibit.
How many JSON objects are represented?
How does frame switching function on a switch?
Drag and drop the configuration management terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right. Not all terms are used.
What is the function of northbound API?
Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right. Not all options are used.
Which advantage does the network assurance capability of Cisco DNA Center provide over traditional campus management?
NO: 346
What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode?
Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.
Cloud-based mode APs relay on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode.
Refer to the exhibit. User traffic originating within site 0 is failing to reach an application hosted on IP address 192.168 0 10. Which is located within site A What is determined by the routing table?
What is the definition of backdoor malware?
Company has decided to require multifactor authentication for all systems. Which set of parameters meets the requirement?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which per-hop QoS behavior is R1 applying to incoming packets?
What are two facts that differentiate optical fiber cabling from copper cabling? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit.
After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?
Refer to the exhibit.
Which two commands, when configured on router R1, fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.)
Packets towards the entire network 2001:db8:2::/64 must be forwarded through router R2.
Packets toward host 2001:db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
An engineer must configure a/30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?
Refer to the exhibit.
If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured ' ? (Choose two)
What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.
Refer to the exhibit.
The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged.
Which command accomplishes this task?
Refer to the exhibit.
After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)
What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?
Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable
What is the result of this configuration?
Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?
How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?
Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST* listens and learns for a specific time period?
What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )
Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?
Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?
What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
Refer to the exhibit.
How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )
