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Viewing questions 21-40 out of questions
Questions # 21:

Operational management in the IT department has developed key performance indicator reports, which are reviewed in detail during monthly staff meetings. This activity is designed to prevent which of the following conditions?

Options:

A.

Knowledge/skills gap,

B.

Monitoring gap.

C.

Accountability/reward failure,

D.

Communication failure.

Questions # 22:

In order for an internal auditor to assess the opportunity for fraud to occur in an organization, which of the following does the auditor first need to understand?

Options:

A.

Fraud prevention.

B.

Fraud detection.

C.

Corporate culture.

D.

Forensic analysis techniques.

Questions # 23:

Which of the following tools would be most useful to an internal auditor performing an assessment of the effectiveness of the organization's risk responses?

Options:

A.

Heat map.

B.

Risk and control matrix.

C.

Risk register.

D.

Process map.

Questions # 24:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding the internal audit charter?

Options:

A.

The IIA's Code of Ethics must exist outside of the charter to maintain independence.

B.

The charter must be approved by both senior management and the board.

C.

The nature of consulting services does not need to be defined in the internal audit charter.

D.

The charter provides a framework for performing a broad range of value-added audit services.

Questions # 25:

Which of the following corporate social responsibility strategies is associated with responding to outside pressure by assuming additional responsibility?

Options:

A.

Accommodation.

B.

Reaction.

C.

Defense.

D.

Proaction.

Questions # 26:

During a procurement process audit the internal audit activity undertakes a fraud risk assessment and considers a range of possible fraud scenarios within the process. Which of the following scenarios constitutes a pressure to commit fraud?

Options:

A.

An employee believes his poor compensation package justifies engaging in unethical behavior.

B.

The head of the department is the only signatory to purchase orders issued to third party contractors.

C.

Some employees strongly believe monetary gifts from vendors is a means of saving for life after employment.

D.

One of the employees was found to have an obsession with expensive jewelry

Questions # 27:

For a new board chair who has not previously served on the organization's board, which of the following steps should first be undertaken to ensure effective leadership to the board?

Options:

A.

Chair should learn the current organizational culture of the company.

B.

Chair should learn the current risk management system of the company.

C.

Chair should determine the appropriateness of the current strategic risks.

D.

Chair should gain an understanding of the needs of key stakeholders.

Questions # 28:

Which of the following statements best demonstrates application of due professional care during an assurance engagement?

Options:

A.

The engagement detected irregularities and noncompliance instances.

B.

The engagement supervisor had no significant comments in the supervisory review.

C.

The audit procedures were systematically planned, executed, and documented.

D.

The engagement objectives were designed to assist the engagement client.

Questions # 29:

The chief audit executive (CAE) planned an in-person group training to help internal auditors perform onsite inspections of an automobile manufacturing facility. The training would have allowed the auditors to better understand the production of the organization's automobiles. However, a global health crisis has impacted the training by prohibiting in-person contact at the facility. Which of the following could the CAE use to provide auditors with a better understanding of the organization s production process?

Options:

A.

A general web-based training on auditing manufacturing processes.

B.

Self-study courses on the industry's production practices

C.

Industry publications that discuss production methods

D.

A virtual meeting with management that explains the production of automobiles

Questions # 30:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding proficiency?

Options:

A.

The globally accepted Certified Internal Auditor designation is mandatory at chief audit executive levels.

B.

Internal auditors are encouraged to obtain appropriate professional designations.

C.

Specialty designations are required for those who perform specialized audit and consulting work.

D.

Studies for professional designations are the preferred source of continuing professional education

Questions # 31:

Which of the following best describes why a chief audit executive might obtain the services of a fraud specialist to assist in a major fraud investigation?

Options:

A.

Fraud specialists are better at using computer-assisted audit techniques.

B.

Fraud specialists are better equipped to act as an expert witness in court.

C.

Fraud specialists are better able to properly apply due professional care.

D.

Fraud specialists are better at using crime scene investigation techniques.

Questions # 32:

Which of the following statements is true regarding consulting engagements?

Options:

A.

Internal auditors cannot provide consulting services related to operations for which they had previous responsibilities.

B.

The nature of consulting services to be performed by internal auditors must be defined in the internal audit charter

C.

If internal auditors have potential impairments to objectivity related to the proposed consulting engagement, the engagement must be declined.

D.

If internal auditors lack the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform the consulting engagement, the engagement can proceed with proper disclosures.

Questions # 33:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is an appropriate role for the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

Coaching management in responding to risks.

B.

Implementing risk responses on management’s behalf.

C.

Imposing risk management processes.

D.

Setting the risk appetite.

Questions # 34:

Which of the following situations is most likely to threaten the independence of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive reports functionally to the board and administratively to the CEO.

B.

The annual budget for the internal audit activity is approved by the chief financial officer.

C.

The internal audit activity is completely outsourced to an external service provider.

D.

The internal audit manager provides consulting services to the procurement department, where she worked during the prior year.

Questions # 35:

According to IIA guidance, the internal audit activity must be free from interference in which of the following areas in order to maintain organizational independence?

Options:

A.

Monitoring resources.

B.

Compensating the chief audit executive.

C.

Determining scope.

D.

Allocating internal costs.

Questions # 36:

An internal auditor has completed an assurance engagement. Which of the following is most likely true regarding the engagement?

Options:

A.

During audit planning the auditor provided the client with the scope of the engagement for their agreement

B.

The results of tie engagement were included m a written report mat was issued to the cleint who requested me engagement

C.

During audit planning the auditor determined that the engagement scope would include a review of the security and privacy of payroll records

D.

The client requested the review of a new payroll system in order to improve the security of fie system

Questions # 37:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following is most critical to ensuring that an organization's risk management program remains effective over time?

Options:

A.

Ensuring a fully executed assurance role for the internal audit activity.

B.

Conducting risk evaluations that include ranking the relative importance of each risk.

C.

Establishing a risk management function and appointing a chief risk officer.

D.

Conducting a combination of ongoing risk reviews and individual evaluations.

Questions # 38:

An internal auditor assessed that the risk of steel theft at a plant is high. In response, the plant's management introduced a number of controls, including fences around the facility, a metal detector at the entrance, and monthly steel inventory counts. If the controls operate as intended, which of the following outcomes would the internal auditor hope to see?

Options:

A.

The inherent risk will be mitigated to a level lower than the residual risk.

B.

The inherent risk will be reduced to an acceptable level.

C.

The residual risk will be reduced to an acceptable level.

D.

The residual risk will be eliminated

Questions # 39:

What is the primary reason a chief audit executive should dedicate time and resources to support continuing professional development of internal audit staff?

Options:

A.

To ensure that internal audit staff maintains high overall job satisfaction.

B.

To ensure that internal audit staff acquired continuing professional education credits timely.

C.

To ensure that top risks are mitigated to an acceptance level.

D.

To ensure that internal audit staff have the competency to address high-priority risks.

Questions # 40:

Which of the following is an advantage of using nongovernmental organization (NGO) members on an assurance team when auditing corporate social responsibility?

Options:

A.

Typically less time is needed to train the NGO members on the audit process.

B.

NGO members are often more unbiased and objective

C.

A report with a positive statement from an NGO member is deemed to be more credible. As opposed to auditors.

D.

NGO members are licensed to audit corporate social responsibility.

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