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Viewing page 6 out of 15 pages
Viewing questions 76-90 out of questions
Questions # 76:

An internal auditor found that his organization did not make a disclosure that is required by law. However, the auditor decided not to raise an audit finding. Which of the following Code of Ethics principles was violated?

Options:

A.

Objectivity.

B.

Integrity.

C.

Proficiency.

D.

Confidentiality.

Questions # 77:

After the final audit report was issued, the engagement supervisor received an expensive gift from management recognizing her assistance in improving the business, if the gift is accepted, which of the following would be true?

Options:

A.

The engagement supervisor violated The IIA's Code of Ethics principle of integrity.

B.

The engagement supervisor violated The IIA's Code of Ethics principle of objectivity.

C.

The engagement supervisor violated The IIA’s Code of Ethics principle of confidentiality.

D.

The engagement supervisor did not violate any principles of The IIA’s Code of Ethics.

Questions # 78:

In a small company with a small budget, the board and senior management asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to develop specific controls prompted by a new regulatory requirement affecting a specific process. The CAE was also directed to report functionally to senior management. An audit engagement on this process was already set in the internal audit plan. Which of the following represents an impairment to the internal audit activity's independence?

Options:

A.

The development of controls by the CAE.

B.

The audit engagement regarding this process.

C.

The functional reporting of the CAE to senior management.

D.

The small budget.

Questions # 79:

Which of the following describes the primary objective when implementing a risk management framework?

Options:

A.

To achieve planned profitability for business expansion.

B.

To enhance an organization's confidence in achieving strategy.

C.

To strengthen corporate governance standards.

D.

To eliminate business risks and uncertainties.

Questions # 80:

Which of the following statements is true regarding occupational fraud?

Options:

A.

An employee who diverts the organization's purchases for personal use is demonstrating asset misappropriation

B.

An employee who intentionally omits negative information in the financial statement disclosures is demonstrating an example of corruption

C.

An employee who made an error in estimating losses may have committed fraud even if the error was not intentional

D.

An employee who creates a denial of service in the organization’s computer systems is committing asset misappropriation

Questions # 81:

An internal audit activity is using the auditing-by-element approach to audit the organization's controls around corporate social responsibility. Which of the following would be an element for the internal audit activity to consider?

Options:

A.

Working conditions.

B.

Employees' families.

C.

Marketplace competition.

D.

Shareholders and investors

Questions # 82:

Which of the following would provide the best support for internal auditors to meet their continuing professional development requirements?

Options:

A.

Access to online internal audit and business skills courses.

B.

Records of self-assessment reports completed by the internal audit staff.

C.

Cosourcing arrangements with external providers on specific engagements.

D.

Performance reviews comparing internal auditors' achievements against specified goals.

Questions # 83:

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between risk appetite and risk tolerance?

Options:

A.

Risk appetite applies to specific objectives, while risk tolerance refers to an organization's general attitude toward risk,

B.

Risk appetite refers to the degree of risk acceptance for a particular objective, while risk tolerance is one approach to risk management.

C.

Risk appetite refers to an organization's general level of acceptance, while risk tolerance is a more specific and subordinate concept.

D.

There is no significant difference between the two terms.

Questions # 84:

According to IIA guidance which of the following correctly describes the standard risk treatments outlined in the process element approach of the framework for risk management?

Options:

A.

Risk avoidance risk sharing application of controls, risk application.

B.

Risk avoidance risk identification application of controls risk acceptance.

C.

Risk identification risk assessment risk avoidance risk monitoring

D.

Risk identification risk assessment application of controls risk acceptance

Questions # 85:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following best describes the chief audit executive s responsibility for confirming to the board the organizational independence of the internal audit activity'?

Options:

A.

The CAE must do this at least annually

B.

The CAE must do this at least once every five years

C.

The CAE must do this upon completion of each external quality assessment

D.

The CAE should do this periodically in conjunction with a review of the internal audit charter

Questions # 86:

A chief audit executive (CAE) identifies that the internal audit activity lacks a necessary skill to perform a management request for a consulting engagement. According to IIA guidance, which of the following is the most appropriate action the CAE should take regarding the request?

Options:

A.

Assign the engagement to a more senior internal auditor.

B.

Decline the engagement request.

C.

Allow the internal auditors to acquire the needed skills while performing the engagement.

D.

Supervise the assigned internal auditors throughout the engagement.

Questions # 87:

Which of the following survey questions would be most effective to identify ethics violations within the organization?

Options:

A.

Are the performance targets in your department realistic and attainable?

B.

Do your coworkers have the knowledge, skills, and training needed to perform their job duties?

C.

Does your supervisor comply with laws and regulations affecting the organization?

D.

Do you have sufficient resources, tools, and time to accomplish your work objectives?

Questions # 88:

Which of the following best describes the Standards requirement for collective proficiency of the internal audit activity?

Options:

A.

The internal audit activity must have auditors on staff who collectively possess all of the competencies required to fulfill the internal audit plan,

B.

All internal auditors on staff should possess the knowledge, skills, and competencies needed to perform any assurance engagement on the audit plan.

C.

The internal audit activity must possess or obtain the competencies needed to carry out their professional responsibilities, including providing relevant advice and recommendations.

D.

Internal auditors collectively are responsible for ensuring that the internal audit activity has the competencies required to fulfill the internal audit plan.

Questions # 89:

Which of the following best describes the approach the internal audit activity should take to assess and make appropriate recommendations to improve the organization?

Options:

A.

To evaluate an organization s governance processes for making strategic and operational decisions eternal auditors should review the organization s policies and processes related to staff compensation

B.

To determine how an organization provides oversight of its risk management and control activities internal auditors should review board meeting minutes and the board policy manual

C.

To assess how an organization promotes ethics and values both internally and among its external business partners, internal auditors should review the organization' s related objectives programs and activities

D.

To evaluate how an organization ensures effective performance management and accountability internal auditors should review previously conducted risk assessments

Questions # 90:

An internal auditor is assessing fraud risks and creating a fraud risk matrix for a particular branch location. Which of the following is most likely to be included in the matrix?

Options:

A.

Risks and relevant mitigating controls.

B.

Business processes and relevant fraud risks.

C.

Fraud scenarios and relevant risks.

D.

Opportunity, rationalization, and pressure to commit fraud.

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Viewing questions 76-90 out of questions