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Viewing page 4 out of 15 pages
Viewing questions 46-60 out of questions
Questions # 46:

Which of the following is a preventive control the organization could implement to mitigate fraudulent activity in the accounts payable department?

Options:

A.

Delivering fraud awareness training to employees in the department.

B.

Segregating duties between employees in the department.

C.

Requesting the internal audit activity perform an independent evaluation of fraud risk in the department.

D.

Requiring accounts payable employees to sign a code of conduct awareness confirmation.

Questions # 47:

The chief audit executive (CAE) of a new internal audit activity is creating an internal audit charter According to IIA guidance, which of the following terms is most likely to

be included in the charter?

Options:

A.

Senior management will be present whenever the CAE interacts with the board, to ensure effective communication among all three parties.

B.

Internal auditors will advise on the design of control policies and procedures in any area where the organization does not possess the requisite expertise,

C.

Internal auditors will demonstrate competence, concern, and the dedication expected of a professional,

D.

Internal auditors will receive performance-based compensation, including bonuses for reporting more than a stipulated number of observations.

Questions # 48:

A third-party provider's questionable labor practices have exposed the organization to reputational risks and regulatory risks. Which of the organization's risk management practices was most likely ineffective?

Options:

A.

The organization ensured that the third-party vendor provided the best pricing for the requested services.

B.

The organization conducted quality control reviews of provided services to ensure industry standards were met.

C.

The organization performed a due diligence review of all vendors during the bid review process.

D.

The organization planned to issue a resolution concerning the third-party provider's labor practices.

Questions # 49:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following activities would typically be examined when using the maturity model approach for assessing an organization's risk management program?

Options:

A.

Monitor and review

B.

Performance measurement.

C.

Setting the context.

D.

Communication.

Questions # 50:

What is an appropriate first step in an internal auditor’s fraud risk assessment to evaluate how the organization manages such risk?

Options:

A.

Develop preventive and detective controls

B.

Identify potential fraud scenarios

C.

Assess the impact and likelihood of fraud risks

D.

Determine fraud risk responses

Questions # 51:

According to NA guidance, which of the following describes the primary reason to implement environmental and social safeguards within an organization?

Options:

A.

To enable Triple Bottom Line reporting capability.

B.

To facilitate the conduct of risk assessment.

C.

To achieve and maintain sustainable development.

D.

To fulfill regulatory and compliance requirements.

Questions # 52:

According to IIA guidance, which of the following statements is true regarding internal auditors' knowledge, skills and other competencies?

Options:

A.

The chief audit executive (CAE) must obtain competent advice and assistance if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to complete the audit engagement

B.

Internal auditors must have sufficient knowledge to evaluate the risk of fraud and the manner in which it is managed by the organization and should have the expertise of a fraud investigator

C.

Internal auditors need to have basic knowledge of key IT risks and controls and available technology-based audit techniques in order to perform their assigned work

D.

The CAE must refuse a consulting engagement if the internal audit activity lacks the knowledge, skills, or other competencies needed to perform all or part of the engagement

Questions # 53:

Which of the following best describes organizational governance processes?

Options:

A.

Processes employed by internal and external assurance providers to authorize, direct, and provide oversight to management to better enable the meeting of organizational objectives

B.

Processes employed by the board of directors to authorize and provide guidance and oversight to management to promote the achievement of organizational objectives.

C.

Processes employed by the board of directors and senior management to mitigate risks to acceptable levels.

D.

Processes employed by risk owners to mitigate risks to acceptable levels within the organization's risk appetite

Questions # 54:

Which of the following is an example of a detective control?

Options:

A.

Automatic shut-off valve.

B.

Auto-correct software functionality.

C.

Confirmation with suppliers and vendors.

D.

Safety instructions.

Questions # 55:

Which of the following could increase risks to the organization’s control environment?

Options:

A.

Strong board of directors oversight.

B.

Incentive-based compensation structures.

C.

Lower than average employee turnover.

D.

Implementation of a fraud hotline.

Questions # 56:

In which of the following ways could stakeholders be engaged in corporate social responsibility efforts?

Options:

A.

Investigation of health and safety incidents.

B.

Auditing of controls and management systems.

C.

Communication of disclosures and external reporting,

D.

Involvement in focus groups and complaint management

Questions # 57:

Management has implemented a segregation-of-duties policy for handling inventory. Which of the following fraud risks would be more concerning to an internal auditor following the implementation of this new policy?

Options:

A.

The risk of collusion between parties.

B.

The risk of falsified reconciliations.

C.

The risk of low-liquidity inventory.

D.

The risk of damages to the inventory.

Questions # 58:

Nine months ago, an employee who was responsible for collections in the accounts receivables department joined the internal audit team. There is an accounts receivables assurance audit scheduled as part of this year's approved audit plan, which will include a review of the collections unit. With the knowledge and experience of this individual in the area, which of the following is the best approach for the chief audit executive (CAE) to take?

Options:

A.

Have the auditor formerly with the collections unit assist with planning and documenting the audit field work.

B.

Have the auditor formerly with the collections unit not participate on the audit team.

C.

Have the auditor formerly with the collections unit conduct the fieldwork and ensure it is reviewed by the CAE.

D.

Have the auditor formerly with the collections unit review all fieldwork done to ensure that there was adequate coverage.

Questions # 59:

What should be the first step for a newly hired chief audit executive to build and maintain the proficiency of the internal audit activity'?

Options:

A.

Incorporate the basic criteria of internal audit competency into job descriptions

B.

Complete a periodic skills assessment of the internal audit activity

C.

Develop a competency or skill assessment tool.

D.

Perform benchmarking with competitors to learn what other firms are doing related to this topic

Questions # 60:

Which of the following would the chief audit executive be required to disclose in the communication of quality assessment results to senior management and the board?

Options:

A.

The cost and frequency of both internal and external assessments.

B.

Any assumptions made by the assessment team

C.

A potential conflict of interest of the assessment team.

D.

The assessment team’s execution plan of relevant procedures.

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