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Pass the PMI CAPM CAPM Questions and answers with Dumpstech

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Viewing page 9 out of 9 pages
Viewing questions 401-450 out of questions
Questions # 401:

When planning communications management what input identifies key stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Project schedule

C.

Project charter

D.

Work performance reports

Questions # 402:

A newly developed project team is working together, building trust and adjusting its work habits to support the team What stage of the Tuckman ladder does this describe?

Options:

A.

Forming

B.

Norming

C.

Storming

D.

Performing

Questions # 403:

Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Activity list

C.

Activity attributes

D.

Project calendars

Questions # 404:

What can increase the complexity of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

Options:

A.

The project must be of high quality.

B.

The stakeholders are from different countries.

C.

The project must comply with strict local government regulations.

D.

The project has a tight budget and timeline.

Questions # 405:

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

Questions # 406:

Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

Options:

A.

Project life cycle

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Project initiation

Questions # 407:

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent of staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to a volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

Questions # 408:

Which behavior relates to team leadership ' ?

Options:

A.

Centering on systems and structure

B.

Providing guidance using the power of relationships

C.

Accepting the status quo

D.

Focusing on operational issues and problem solving

Questions # 409:

Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Cost baseline

Questions # 410:

How can a project manager represent a contingency reserve in the schedule?

Options:

A.

Additional weeks of work to account for unknown-unknowns risks

B.

Task duration estimates of the best case scenarios

C.

Addition Duration estimates in response to identified risks that have been accepted

D.

Milestones representing the completion of deliverables

Questions # 411:

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

Questions # 412:

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa diagram

B.

Control chart

C.

Run chart

D.

Pareto chart

Questions # 413:

A team member, who is close to an influential stakeholder, has joined the project team. The stakeholder is routing requests for multiple reports through the new team member, and the team member reaches out to the project manager regarding this. What should the project manager do first?

Options:

A.

Forward the status reports to the stakeholder.

B.

Manage stakeholder engagement.

C.

Consult the communications management plan.

D.

Update the communications management plan.

Questions # 414:

Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

Options:

A.

Responsible organization

B.

Change requests

C.

Validated deliverables

D.

Organizational process assets

Questions # 415:

How can you describe the role of the project.... of influence concept?

Options:

A.

The proiect manager proactivnly interacfS with other project managers creating a positive influence Km fulfilling project needs, working with other managers and sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues and ensunng that the project managemenl plan aligns with the portfolio or program plan

B.

The project manager leads the team, performs communication roles between stakeholders, and uses interpersonal sills to balance conflicting goals

C.

The proiect manager stays informed about current technology developments lakes into account new quality management standards, and uses relevant technical support tools

D.

The proiect manager participates in project management trainings, contributes to the organization professional community sharing knowledge, and maintains subied matter expertise

Questions # 416:

A project team is working on a new driverless vehicle and is organizing a workshop with experts to analyze the data received from the prototype. Who should the project manager invite to provide expert advice?

Options:

A.

The subject matter experts (SMEs) identified in the stakeholder register

B.

The senior experts with high status in the academic community

C.

The major stakeholders nominated by the project sponsor

D.

The usual review participants holding recognized certifications

Questions # 417:

One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:

Options:

A.

highlight the need for root cause analysis.

B.

share the process documentation among stakeholders.

C.

offer assistance with non-value-added activities.

D.

identify all of the gaps or shortcomings.

Questions # 418:

In the project charter process, which three of the following are discussed during meetings held with stakeholders? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

High-level deliverables

B.

Phase transitions

C.

Project objectives

D.

Success criteria

E.

Cost

Questions # 419:

During project execution, a team member has identified and then analyzed an opportunity that

will yield a net saving of 10% and reduce time in the schedule by 20%

Which strategy should the project manager adopt to accommodate this opportunity?

Options:

A.

Escalate to upper management to build awareness of the opportunity.

B.

Exploit the opportunity immediately, since the cost saving makes it worthwhile.

C.

Transfer the opportunity to a partner and start a partner contract.

D.

Create a trail of the opportunity before full adoption, because of the risk associated.

Questions # 420:

Which knowledge area includes the processes to identify, define, and unify the various project management processes?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management

B.

Project Communications Management

C.

Project Qualify Management

D.

Project Risk Management

Questions # 421:

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?

Options:

A.

Before constraints have been identified

B.

Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method

C.

After it has been analyzed by the critical path method

D.

After critical activities have been removed from the critical path

Questions # 422:

The following is a network diagram for a project.

Question # 422

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

Questions # 423:

Why is tailoring required in a project?

Options:

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so tailoring is not required.

Questions # 424:

The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

Options:

A.

Define Scope.

B.

Develop Project Management Plan.

C.

Plan Scope Management.

D.

Plan Quality Management.

Questions # 425:

Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Schedule data

B.

Activity list

C.

Risk register

D.

Scope baseline

Questions # 426:

A project manager proactively meets with other project managers who manage other projects in the same program. To minimize the impact that other projects within the program may have on their project of what should the project manager be aware?

Options:

A.

Demands on the same resources

B.

Requirements that impact the scope

C.

Uncertainty of emerging issues

D.

Project charter

Questions # 427:

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

Options:

A.

Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B.

Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.

C.

Increase the probability and impact of positive events.

D.

Removal of project risk.

Questions # 428:

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

Questions # 429:

During the project planning process, which three of the following stakeholders are required to take part in the risk assessment meeting? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

End user

B.

Product owner

C.

Subject matter experts (SMEs)

D.

Project sponsor

E.

Project team

Questions # 430:

What specific quality considerations should be examined while completing Quality Management plan?

Options:

A.

Risk registerB Stakeholder engagement

B.

Continuous improvement

C.

Standards and regulatory compliance

Questions # 431:

A project manager is reporting the project performance as 25 days worth of work completed against 13 days originally planned. What is the schedule variance (SV)?

Options:

A.

-12

B.

1.15

C.

38

D.

12

Questions # 432:

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Questions # 433:

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

Questions # 434:

Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

Options:

A.

Contract plan

B.

Procurement plan

C.

Closure process

D.

Procurement audits

Questions # 435:

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

Options:

A.

Within a work package.

B.

In each phase of the project.

C.

To estimate schedule constraints.

D.

To estimate resource allocations.

Questions # 436:

A project manager read the initial contract when a project was started. The contract states a house has to be built in one year, and the foundation has to be completed in 30 days. What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Add the milestones to the risk register, as time is short.

B.

Add the two milestones to the project plan, as they are mandatory.

C.

Calculate the duration of the two milestones stated in the contract.

D.

Start the project as soon as possible, as time is short.

Questions # 437:

Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Work

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Plan Quality Management

D.

Monitor and Control Project Work

Questions # 438:

In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Time Management

D.

Project Integration Management

Questions # 439:

Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B.

Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management

C.

Planning Process Group and Project Time Management

D.

Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Questions # 440:

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Project statement of work

B.

Selected sellers

C.

Risk register updates

D.

Teaming agreements

Questions # 441:

What estimating technique is used when there is limited information?

Options:

A.

Analogous estimating

B.

Parametric estimating

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Three-point estimating

Questions # 442:

A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Perform Integrated Change Control

Questions # 443:

A few project team members are having issues understanding the requirements as described. Which action should be taken to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Review the requirements traceability matrix and set up a meeting with the business analyst and key stakeholders.

B.

Review the requirements traceability matrix, the business analysis communications management plan, and set up a meeting with the business analyst and key stakeholders.

C.

Review the business analysis communications management plan and set up a meeting with the business analyst and key stakeholders.

D.

Review the project management plan and set up a meeting with the project manager and key stakeholders.

Questions # 444:

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Questions # 445:

How can a project manager determine if the project activities comply with organizational and project policies, processes, and procedures?

Options:

A.

Look at the quality metrics.

B.

Validate the scope.

C.

Review the quality checklist.

D.

Conduct a quality audit.

Questions # 446:

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Checklist

C.

Assumption

D.

Cost-Benefit

Questions # 447:

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

Options:

A.

Root cause analysis.

B.

Risk probability and impact assessment.

C.

Expert judgment.

D.

Revised stakeholders ' tolerances.

Questions # 448:

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Questions # 449:

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

Options:

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

Questions # 450:

Make-or-buy analysis is a tool and technique of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurement Management

C.

Analyze Procurements

D.

Control Procurements

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Viewing questions 401-450 out of questions